Free CompTIA CySA+ Vulnerability Management Practice Test 2026 — CS0-004 Questions

This free CompTIA CySA+ Vulnerability Management practice test covers vulnerability scanning, CVSS scoring, asset prioritization, patching and remediation, attack surface management, and secure coding practices. Each question includes a detailed explanation with cybersecurity analysis context — perfect for CS0-004 exam prep.

Key Topics in CompTIA CySA+ Vulnerability Management

Free CompTIA CySA+ Vulnerability Management Practice Questions with Answers

Each question below includes 4 answer options, the correct answer, and a detailed explanation. These are real questions from the FlashGenius CompTIA CySA+ CS0-004 question bank for the Vulnerability Management domain (26% of the exam).

Sample Question 1 — Vulnerability Management

During external attack surface review, the analyst receives the following scan excerpt for a public IP: Host: 203.0.113.25 22/tcp open ssh OpenSSH 8.4 443/tcp open https nginx 1.18.0 8080/tcp open http Jenkins 2.303 OS guess: Linux 5.x What is the BEST conclusion to document before escalating this host as a vulnerability finding?

  1. A. The host is definitely compromised because Jenkins is exposed on TCP 8080
  2. B. The scan confirms exploitable CVEs on nginx and Jenkins
  3. C. The results show reachable services that require vulnerability validation (Correct answer)
  4. D. The output proves the firewall policy is incorrect and incomplete

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Correct answer (C): This output is discovery and fingerprinting data. It shows externally reachable services, likely software banners, and an OS guess, which is valuable for attack surface management. However, it does not by itself prove compromise or confirm that specific CVEs are present and exploitable. A CySA+ analyst should document that the host has exposed services and then validate versions, configurations, and applicable vulnerabilities before escalating it as a confirmed vulnerability finding. Why the other options are wrong: - Option A: Exposure of Jenkins may increase risk, but exposure alone does not prove the host has already been compromised. - Option B: Service banners help guide follow-up analysis, but they do not automatically confirm exploitable CVEs without validation of the actual software build and configuration. - Option D: The scan shows what is reachable from the internet, but it does not prove the firewall is wrong. The exposure could be intentional.

Sample Question 2 — Vulnerability Management

A vulnerability analyst must choose one finding to remediate first during an emergency change window. The current prioritization matrix shows: A. HR-PORTAL01 - Apache Struts RCE - CVSS 8.1 - EPSS 0.94 - Internet-facing payroll portal - Threat intel shows active exploitation - No compensating control B. LAB-KIOSK12 - Browser sandbox escape - CVSS 9.8 - EPSS 0.02 - Internal lab kiosk - Segmented VLAN - No privileged data C. FIN-DB03 - Weak TLS certificate setting - CVSS 5.0 - EPSS N/A - Internal finance database - No internet exposure D. BAK-MGMT01 - Auth bypass - CVSS 8.8 - EPSS 0.12 - Management interface restricted to admin VLAN - VPN plus MFA required Which finding should be remediated FIRST?

  1. A. HR-PORTAL01 (Correct answer)
  2. B. LAB-KIOSK12
  3. C. FIN-DB03
  4. D. BAK-MGMT01

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Correct answer (A): HR-PORTAL01 is the highest operational priority because it combines several factors that matter more than CVSS alone: it is internet-facing, business-critical, has very high exploit likelihood, and threat intelligence indicates active exploitation, with no compensating control in place. CySA+ prioritization is risk-based, so a slightly lower CVSS finding on a public, actively targeted payroll system can outrank a higher CVSS issue on an isolated internal asset. Why the other options are wrong: - Option B: The CVSS score is higher, but the asset is segmented, internally scoped, and lower impact, with low exploit likelihood. - Option C: This finding is lower severity, internally scoped, and lacks evidence of urgent exploitability, so it should not be first in an emergency window. - Option D: An auth bypass is serious, but the restricted admin VLAN plus VPN and MFA are compensating controls that reduce immediate exposure compared with the public payroll portal.

Sample Question 3 — Vulnerability Management

A cloud posture review shows the following for vm-web-07: Public IP: 198.51.100.24 Security group: 0.0.0.0/0 allowed to ports 22, 80, 443 Vulnerability scan: OpenSSL package vulnerable, patch available Asset tag: Public marketing website Operational note: Administrators can use an existing bastion host Which action is BEST?

  1. A. Close the finding because the cloud provider manages infrastructure security
  2. B. Restrict SSH to the bastion or approved admin IPs and schedule the package patch (Correct answer)
  3. C. Leave the security group unchanged and rely on provider DDoS protection
  4. D. Remove public access from ports 80 and 443 immediately

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Correct answer (B): The best response reduces unnecessary exposure and addresses the host vulnerability without breaking the business service. Because administrators already have a bastion host, SSH does not need to be open to the internet. At the same time, the vulnerable OpenSSL package still needs to be patched because workload configuration and patching remain the customer's responsibility under the shared responsibility model. Why the other options are wrong: - Option A: The provider does not assume responsibility for securing the customer workload's package state and security-group configuration. - Option C: DDoS protection does not solve exposed administrative access or missing package remediation. - Option D: Ports 80 and 443 are necessary for a public marketing site, so removing them would unnecessarily disrupt the business function.

Sample Question 4 — Vulnerability Management

A container security review reports these findings: A. img-ci-runner - 27 critical packages - Build pipeline image only - Not deployed to production - No inbound network access B. ctr-payment-api - Vulnerable deserialization library - CVSS 6.4 - EPSS 0.71 - Internet-facing production API - Runs as root - Processes cardholder data C. ctr-archive-job - CVSS 9.1 library issue - Internal scheduled job - No listening port - Isolated subnet D. ctr-dev-preview - CVSS 8.0 package issue - Internet-facing temporary preview app - Synthetic test data only - Auto-destroyed daily Which finding should be remediated FIRST?

  1. A. img-ci-runner
  2. B. ctr-payment-api (Correct answer)
  3. C. ctr-archive-job
  4. D. ctr-dev-preview

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Correct answer (B): ctr-payment-api is the highest priority because container risk must be evaluated in deployment context, not by package count alone. This workload is internet-facing, in production, handles cardholder data, has high exploit likelihood, and runs as root, all of which raise practical risk. The other findings matter, but they are less urgent because they lack the same combination of exposure, sensitivity, privilege, and production impact. Why the other options are wrong: - Option A: The large number of critical packages is concerning, but the image is not deployed to production and has no inbound exposure, so it is not the first operational risk to address. - Option C: The CVSS score is higher, but the job is internal, isolated, and not listening for inbound connections, which lowers immediate exploitability. - Option D: Internet exposure makes this important, but synthetic data and short-lived deployment reduce business impact compared with the payment API.

Sample Question 5 — Vulnerability Management

An authenticated scan confirms that a legacy radiology server uses an unsupported operating system with multiple kernel vulnerabilities. The medical device vendor will not provide a supported upgrade for 9 months. Current controls include a dedicated VLAN, ACLs that allow only the application server to connect, and no internet access. The business owner approves continued use if the risk is formally documented. What is the BEST analyst recommendation?

  1. A. Document risk acceptance with the current mitigations, require periodic review, and continue pursuing replacement (Correct answer)
  2. B. Remove the ACLs so operations staff can access the server more easily until a patch is released
  3. C. Close the finding as a false positive because no vendor patch is available
  4. D. Leave the finding open but postpone documentation until the vendor provides an upgrade

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Correct answer (A): This is a classic case for documented risk acceptance with compensating controls. The vulnerability is real, remediation is not currently feasible, exposure has been reduced through segmentation and ACLs, and the business owner has approved continued operation if the risk is formally recorded. Proper analyst guidance is to document the exception, retain the mitigations, review it periodically, and continue working toward replacement or upgrade. Why the other options are wrong: - Option B: Removing ACLs would weaken compensating controls and increase exposure, making the situation worse. - Option C: No available vendor patch does not make the result a false positive. The vulnerability still exists. - Option D: Undocumented delay is not valid risk treatment. Risk acceptance must be explicit, documented, and reviewed.

Sample Question 6 — Vulnerability Management

A weekly remediation meeting reviews the following findings. Artifact: 1. VPN gateway | Internet-facing | CVSS 7.5 | EPSS 0.93 | KEV-listed | Asset criticality: very high 2. Internal file server | Internal only | CVSS 9.8 | EPSS 0.02 | No known exploit activity | Asset criticality: medium 3. Developer workstation | Internal only | CVSS 8.8 | EPSS 0.18 | EDR present | Asset criticality: low 4. Test web server | Internet-facing | CVSS 6.5 | EPSS 0.05 | Nonproduction | Asset criticality: low Which finding should the analyst recommend remediating first?

  1. A. The VPN gateway because it is exposed, critical, and likely to be exploited (Correct answer)
  2. B. The internal file server because it has the highest CVSS score
  3. C. The developer workstation because endpoint attacks often lead to lateral movement
  4. D. The test web server because internet exposure always outweighs all other factors

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Correct answer (A): The VPN gateway is the highest priority because remediation urgency is driven by more than CVSS. It is internet-facing, supports a very high-criticality function, has a very high EPSS score, and is KEV-listed, which indicates known real-world exploitation pressure. That combination makes it more urgent than an internal-only CVSS 9.8 finding with low exploit likelihood. CySA+ prioritization requires balancing severity, exploitability, exposure, and business impact together. Why the other options are wrong: - Option B: This is a common CVSS-only mistake. The file server is technically severe, but it is internal only, has low EPSS, and lacks active exploitation indicators. - Option C: Developer workstations can be stepping stones, but this item has lower criticality and weaker exploitability indicators than the VPN gateway. - Option D: Internet exposure matters, but it does not override all other context. The test web server is low criticality and has much lower exploitability pressure than the VPN gateway.

How to Study CompTIA CySA+ Vulnerability Management

Combine these CompTIA CySA+ Vulnerability Management practice questions with hands-on work in SIEM platforms, vulnerability scanners, and analysis tools. The CS0-004 exam emphasizes applied analyst skills, so practice interpreting real telemetry and alerts to build the judgment that separates passing and failing scores.

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